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#21 | |
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UG's Mr Chord Man
Join Date: Feb 2008
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It's a deceptive cadence again. Strictly speaking the following C should be in 1st inversion. If you listen to that song very carefully, the string section gives the impression of triad over bass. G/A (Its like I just stepped outside) - A (when everything was going right) Code:
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#22 | |
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Registered User
Join Date: Apr 2007
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It looks to me like it's just a variation of a minor ii(half diminished) V7 i. Really common, check out Autumn Leaves for an example. |
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#23 |
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Registered User
Join Date: Feb 2012
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ii-V is the most common shit in the universe, besides water and aids.
When you see a ii-V just analyze it as V.
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#24 | |
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Registered User
Join Date: Jan 2013
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yep. That is a classic tonicizattion of IV (you see it all the way back in Bach's music). Once you've tonicized a harmony, you can base a short progression off it, then pull another tonicization to get to V. If you want to get real prim and proper, label your secondary dominants as V7/? - pronounced "Five-Seven of [whatever]". Last edited by cdgraves : 02-08-2013 at 11:14 AM. |
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#25 | |
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Registered User
Join Date: Jan 2013
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Quote:
I'd do that for a I6/5->V (double sus on the V), but not a ii V. ii and IV are pre-dominants that imply their own harmony. Think voice leading. Analyzing both as V,the ii would be, then, a V6/5 with the bass moving up by a third to the root of V. Very unorthodox. ii prepares a cadence, but I wouldn't analyze it as part of it. That all said, if you're just doing a diatonic ii-V-I you can label the whole progression I until it moves to tonicize another harmony (as in the TS's I-V7/IV-IV example). Last edited by cdgraves : 02-08-2013 at 11:13 AM. |
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#26 |
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Registered User
Join Date: Feb 2012
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Bro, we aren't talking CPP voice leading here. We're talking about harmonic motion in music post 1850. Get with the times.
[ii-V] as a grouping can just be reduced to [V] because it's just a distinctive dominant movement the ii is just some extra root motion. You see this in Jazz EVERYWHERE. IF he sees a [ii-V]/vi in a key, there's no point in him trying to separately analyse where this ii chord is pulled from. Like in the example, F#m in the key of G major. is it...vii? No, that misses the point. It's attached to the V that follows, it's really just a ii-V/vi, or just call it V/vi, because that's what the entire harmonic movement implies functionally.
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Last edited by chronowarp : 02-08-2013 at 02:50 PM. |
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