Scourge441

Still, he should explain how the modes relate in keys, since the chords in a key are derived from the modes.

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epy

to check out my modal excersise thread...great coverage of the modes in G maj....all patterns are moveable too

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Fast_Bear

you can also use Bass chords.
Like me. >:
(but who cares about me? ;_; )

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Applehead

^ We know you can use bass chords, but this is not about bass chords.

RHCP-baSs fan

very good lesson! I know most of it so it helps to know the rest. Can someone tell me what diminished means?

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Applehead

Diminished means lowered (flat)
Augmented means raised (sharp)

Fast_Bear

Are there more Modes?

Where could one find them?

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musiclover2399

Yes there are more, the seven we repeatedly talk about are today's MODERN modes. Back in the day they had several different ones.

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So it goes.

Woogles

This is kinda a noob question and might have already been answered or something.

But why are bass scales never on the G string?

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MATTTHEMOP

well, they are... the notes are on the G string as well. its just that with a lot of exercises and demonstrations, you can work through a scale from the tonic to the octave without using the 4th (g string), that is, if you start the scale with a note on the E string.

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XeNoCiDe730

can someone explain things like relative keys? (i think thats the term for it)

I mean, I know that A minor is the relative minor of C Major. C Major and A minor are both in the key of C. No sharps, no flats. But why then, do we need two scales that contain the same notes? They both have C D E F G A B. I know it has something to do with intervals and stuff but i cant really explain it.

Like when I was going through this lesson with my bass (great lesson btw) and I played the locrian mode starting on B, the end result was B C D E F G A and then back to B....

Can someone tell me why these things overlap? I reckon there are a bunch of others that overlap so why do we need 80 million scales????

(btw i know that there arent 80 million scales that was just an exaggeration in case anyone wants to get funny)

this is probably a really newb question and its probably basic theory but I just need someone to tell me directly.

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jazz_rock_feel

I am unsure but personally I think it's because of what chords you would use in that key and what tones you resolve to. Like in C major you will resolve a lot to C and maybe G in a minor you would resolve to a and maybe e. That's just what my thinking is.

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crazypeanutman

when you get into tonality, most chord progressions will want to resolve to the beginning and should. resolving a Gmaj to an Emin could work, but and Amin would leave it a bit incomplete.

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musiclover2399

XeNoCiDe730, I totally understand where you're coming from and have a simple answer. Scales with the same notes sound different because of how they gravitate towards the root. For example, play the C maor scale starting on the A string, pretty light sounding right?

Hit the open E, let it ring, and immediately play the scale again. Sounds different aye? It's because of how the notes are contrasting, very much like how a guitarists chords sound the way they do, because of how they react to eachother.

I can go into much more detail, if you want me to send a PM or look for when I eventually do a lesson myself.

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So it goes.

Piro Gonzalez

I've always played Phrygian like this, are you sure this isn't right? I'm still new, so forgive me if I'm incorrect:

---------------------------------------------8--10
------------------------------8--10--11---------
---------------8--9--11-------------------------
---8--9--11-------------------------------------

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seun

well am new here and am feeling at home love to chat with anybody available

seun

whatz up with anybody

jazz_rock_feel

This isn't a chat room. It's a forum. If you don't have anything to contribute or a question please don't post.

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crazypeanutman

you've lowered the 5th as well as the 2end, this is a locrian scale. if it were a phrygian you would have left the 5th unchanged.

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