#1
Hey Guys,

I'm new to having a good amp. I just bought a JCM 900 (4100) and it has an FX Loop. I've allways been told to run MXR Pedals etc in the FX loop. I tried this. It just removed any EQ settings I use on the front of the amp.

I've since learned that the FX loop bypasses the amps Pre-amp. Does that mean that I'm going to have to run some form of pre-amp (I have a V-Amp2) in the loop too? Or even in the front of the amps input?

Sorry if none of that made sense. I'm very new to this
"if i were you I wouldn't fiddle with the feet etc. as that nullifies warranty but yeh, just get up in digitech's grill and demand they make you a custom whammy that is purple and gold and fires rockets when you bend +2 octaves"
#2
Hold on.... you dont need another preamp. Simply put, delay/chorus/eq/reverb pedals sound better when they bypass the preamp stage generally. Umm im not sure what you're doing but try this.... grab your delay pedal.

fx send>input of pedal>output of pedal>fx return.
Epi Les Paul-APH1/Mean 90
MIM Strat

Korg DTR1000
ADA MP-1
Mesa/Boogie Quad Pre
Mesa/Boogie Midi Matrix
<power amp>

Quote by rhcp_freak
If you're EQ'd loose, you'll sound loose anyway.
Last edited by occub at Dec 27, 2008,
#3
Thanks for the reply man.

I've just put the things in the FX loop again. And now i'm not getting the same problem as before. So it might of been a strange coincidence.

Thanks again
"if i were you I wouldn't fiddle with the feet etc. as that nullifies warranty but yeh, just get up in digitech's grill and demand they make you a custom whammy that is purple and gold and fires rockets when you bend +2 octaves"