#1
All right . . .

So lately, I've been reading about Arpeggios. However, I'm slightly confused on applying this to theory. Let me give you an example.

I'm writing a song in the key of F minor.

The chord D is in the key of F minor.

Would I now be able to use the notes of the D chord in this song, and it'd be in the key of F minor? Or would only F chords be in the key of F minor?

Just trying to stay in key . . .

Ahem.

Anyway.

Thanks in advance for the help.
"Normal people are so hostile."
-Dexter Morgan
#2
First of all, the chord D is not in any key of F, since D has an F#, I'm going to assume you mean D minor.

The chords are where you get the notes to use for the solo. If the chord sounds good in the progression, than in no way will an arpeggio of the chord sound bad, it's just impossible.
Quote by Zaphod_Beeblebr
Theory is descriptive, not prescriptive.


Quote by MiKe Hendryckz
theory states 1+1=2 sometimes in music 1+1=3.