so, question i can't seem to find the answer to: with barre chords that have the root note on the A-string, ex. B- x24442, Bm- x24434, if I go ahead and barre the E-string as well, it sounds like another note in the chord, but the chord is always listed with the top string unsounded. is it ok to barre the E-string and play it as well in the chord? or does this somehow change the chord?

i ask because it's way easier for me to just go ahead and bar the whole fret and not worry about having to mute the E-string. but at the same time, i don't want to get into the habit of doing it if it's not right. well, or at least i want to understand theoretically what the difference would be.

well, any help would be greatly appreciated.

You can do it if you want to. It's only a bad habit if you do it every time. But it does change the chord, slightly. It'll stay a B chord, it's just the bass note will change. It'll go from a B, to a B/F# (second inversion: the 5th (F#) is in the bass instead of B).

It adds a different tonality (to me.. I personally don't do it unless I have to when voice leading), and it's probably just easiest/best to learn how to mute the E-string... that'll help you out alot more in the long run.
great reply! thanks, DiminishedFifth. that's exactly what i wanted to know. i'll start trying to mute the E-string from now on.

so far so good on this forum!
I think the last guy miss-understood your problem.

Are you talking about low (sounding) E string, or the high?
I do it a lot. It adds weight to a heavy chord and there's always the trick of leaving the E open when playing the E chord that adds even more bass. It suits heavy rock, metal etc., but I'd be a little more careful on an acoustic number.
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