#1
I have a question about the V - I resolution I was hoping someone could answer. Does the root of the V chord move to the root of the I, or does it stay where it is and become the dominant of the root chord?
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Theory is descriptive, not prescriptive.


Quote by MiKe Hendryckz
theory states 1+1=2 sometimes in music 1+1=3.
#2
(I think) It's the same note, it can move where it likes.
as long as you go from the V to the I. That note doesn't have ot move. It can go down to the I or it can just turn into the fifth of the I.

lol (that sounds so complex)

But, yeah that note (maybe not pitch) will be in both chords (unless you leave the fifth out of the I)
Last edited by mdwallin at Jun 25, 2009,
#3
it goes to the root of the 1 for it to be a perfect authentic cadence the chords cannot be inverted
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#4
Perfect Authentic Cadence:

1. V(7) to I

2. Stepwise motion to root in tenor (melody)

3. Both chords in root position.
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#5
Both.

It can stay where it is and become the P5 of the tonic while at the same time moving down to the root/bass of the tonic.

There is root movement and there is voice leading. A listener will hear the individual voices move from chord to chord while at the same time perceive the overall root movement between chords. If that makes sense.
Si
#6
It does. I know musicians experience this, I wasn't sure if casual listeners do aswell.
Quote by Zaphod_Beeblebr
Theory is descriptive, not prescriptive.


Quote by MiKe Hendryckz
theory states 1+1=2 sometimes in music 1+1=3.