#1
so say there is a song in the key of g and the progression go as follows:

G7 D7 Am C7

now to my understanding the first chord should be GMaj7 right? is there an explanation as to why anyone would use G7 instead of Gmaj7?

The Gmaj scale would call for f# to be used instead of f which makes the dominant 7th chord. but this progression uses f. I then thought it might be a modal progression from something like cmiixolydian, but then the D7 and C7 wouldn't fit in.

So whats the logic behind this progression, because now im confused
#2
It's a cliched blues progression. It's very common to replace...uh, just about everything with a dominant chord, really, for no other reason than the dissonance it provides. There's nothing unusual about it.
Someones knowledge of guitar companies spelling determines what amps you can own. Really smart people can own things like Framus because they sound like they might be spelled with a "y" but they aren't.
#4
It's not that it's illogical - it's consonant (as opposed to dissonant) so, that's your explanation.
#6
thats just a blues progression. In blues the I IV and V are all played as dominant chords, and the Am is just the ii chord which is a common thing done in "jazz blues".
"I wanna see movies of my dreams"
#7
@TimboSlice

A dominant 7 chord is dissonant. The lowered 7th makes a tritone with the 3rd. And last time I checked, a tritone was dissonant.
#8
Quote by DirtyMcCurty
So whats the logic behind this progression, because now im confused

The dominant 7th will make it more bluesy.
#9
Quote by DirtyMcCurty
so theres nothing logical about it, its just an out of key note?


Logic is a system of inference. It doesn't have anything to do with logic. Unless you're asking whether or not the decision to use the G7 chord is logical, in which case we'd need some premises...

P1 - I want my music to sound good
P2 - The G7 chord sounds good

Given those premises, the use of the chord is the logical conclusion.
Anyway, G7 chords are commonly used in blues because the dissonance is found to be attractive, and just about anything can be played over them. In other words, they're used for the same reason any other concept is used in any other song: It sounds the way the composer wants it to sound (barring music as an intellectual endevor, which is no less legitimate that any other motivation).

but it is considered out of key correct?


It's out of the the G major scale. It isn't "out of key". The progression is still in G major.
Someones knowledge of guitar companies spelling determines what amps you can own. Really smart people can own things like Framus because they sound like they might be spelled with a "y" but they aren't.
Last edited by Archeo Avis at Jul 19, 2009,
#11
Quote by pwrmax
Now that I think about it, Art + Logic = Garbage.


Art + Regular Logic = Realism.

Art + Irregular Logic = Surrealism.

Is that clear?

TS: There is no such thing as "out of key correct." You can do whatever you want as long as it sounds good. If you are looking for a convention, here it is: In blues, everything sounds better as a dominant chord . In actuality, there are more than a few "logical" reasons to use a non diatonic dominant chord, but none of these chords seem to be in there for any reason besides the ****s and giggles.
i don't know why i feel so dry
#12
Quote by pwrmax
Now that I think about it, Art + Logic = Garbage.


How so? Unless your only understanding of the concept of "logic" comes from Star Trek...
Someones knowledge of guitar companies spelling determines what amps you can own. Really smart people can own things like Framus because they sound like they might be spelled with a "y" but they aren't.
#13
Quote by Archeo Avis
How so? Unless your only understanding of the concept of "logic" comes from Star Trek...

I remember once learning all these rules in theory class about composition and every time I try following them I get the most bland and boring composition. My prof says the reason we learn them is so we have something to break.

My understanding of logic is to always play it by the book and follow the rules.
#14
Quote by pwrmax
I remember once learning all these rules in theory class about composition and every time I try following them I get the most bland and boring composition. My prof says the reason we learn them is so we have something to break.

My understanding of logic is to always play it by the book and follow the rules.


Logic is an incredibly broad field of study that can't really be summed up conveniently, but can here be reasonably described as a system of inference. It has no more to do with "playing by the book" than Chemistry has anything to do with supply and demand.

As for your first paragraph; you clearly didn't understand the purpose of the rules (conventions) that your professor was relaying to do. First of all, conventions are not arbitrary, and are established based on elements common to music in a specific genre and specific period. The seventh in a minor key is traditionally raised to facilitate the establishing of a minor key, not because composers drew scale degrees out of a hat and decided to raise one of them. Second, students are made to adhere to these conventions so that they can learn in a structured environment. No one, anywhere, is claiming that music is somehow "wrong" if you don't abide by these conventions.
Someones knowledge of guitar companies spelling determines what amps you can own. Really smart people can own things like Framus because they sound like they might be spelled with a "y" but they aren't.
Last edited by Archeo Avis at Jul 20, 2009,
#15
Quote by Archeo Avis
Wow. Most people don't really understand what logic is, but it would at least bring to mind a syllogism or something. But that...your definition is so hilariously far removed from reality that it's baffling.

Logic is an incredibly broad field of study that can't really be summed up conveniently, but can here be reasonably described as a system of inference. It has no more to do with "playing by the book" than Chemistry has anything to do with supply and demand.

Is it not subjective? If so then you're no more correct than I am.