#1
So in a video josh middleton made on how to play one of their songs, he says that the intro is in [something]phrygian. But it's like a chord progression with nothing on top of it :s don't you need something behind the mode for it to be a mode? Like a chord progression or something?
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#2
You said it's a chord progression, so your question is irrelevant, but if it was an unaccompanied melody, it could still be correctly analyzed as utilizing the notes of a particular mode.

So to answer the core of your question..... No, you don't need to have "something behind the mode" for a melody to be considered to be in a mode. I can understand though, how you would get that idea, if you are learning about modes from advice given here.
shred is gaudy music
Last edited by GuitarMunky at Oct 6, 2009,
#3
Meh, he was probably just using colloquial "rock musician" speak.
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#4
You don't need something behind it to make it modal, but if there IS something behind it, like a chord progression, then that normally dictates what scale/mode it is rather than the melody.