So in a video josh middleton made on how to play one of their songs, he says that the intro is in [something]phrygian. But it's like a chord progression with nothing on top of it :s don't you need something behind the mode for it to be a mode? Like a chord progression or something?
You said it's a chord progression, so your question is irrelevant, but if it was an unaccompanied melody, it could still be correctly analyzed as utilizing the notes of a particular mode.

So to answer the core of your question..... No, you don't need to have "something behind the mode" for a melody to be considered to be in a mode. I can understand though, how you would get that idea, if you are learning about modes from advice given here.
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Last edited by GuitarMunky at Oct 6, 2009,
Meh, he was probably just using colloquial "rock musician" speak.
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You don't need something behind it to make it modal, but if there IS something behind it, like a chord progression, then that normally dictates what scale/mode it is rather than the melody.