#1

Sup Bitches?

It goes like this cot (x) * sin(x) = cos(x)

no numbers involved just switching shit around to make cos(x) = cos(x)

i got

How do i deal with that fraction within a fraction bitch?

Thanks

It goes like this cot (x) * sin(x) = cos(x)

no numbers involved just switching shit around to make cos(x) = cos(x)

i got

```
1 * sin(x) = cos(x)
-------- -------
sin(x) 1
--------
cos(x)
```

How do i deal with that fraction within a fraction bitch?

Thanks

#2

Put the denominator of of the fraction in the denominator and put it on the top

i.e 1 / (1/2) = (1*2) / 1

i.e 1 / (1/2) = (1*2) / 1

#3

1/sin/cos is really cos/sin hopefully that'll help

#4

1/sin/cos is really cos/sin hopefully that'll help

+1.

Also, https://www.ultimate-guitar.com/forum/showthread.php?t=658547

For future reference.

#5

i just did these, u in 12?

the cot can be turned into Cos^2/Sin^2

then you have

cos^2 Sin

--------- X --------

sin^2 Sin

= cos^2sin

------------

sin^2

then you factor the top, cross out the sins and you are done. i think, idk this stuff gave me trouble.

the cot can be turned into Cos^2/Sin^2

then you have

cos^2 Sin

--------- X --------

sin^2 Sin

= cos^2sin

------------

sin^2

then you factor the top, cross out the sins and you are done. i think, idk this stuff gave me trouble.

#6

bad math

Not at all. Cot != cos^2/sin^2, and sin/sin =1, not sin.

#7

In regards to the actual question you had to answer, if you still need help on it, once you have cos/sin you multiply that by sin giving you sincos/sin which allows you to cancel out the sins giving you cos

#8

cotangent = 1/(sin/cos) which is the exact same thing as (cos/sin)

remember that (2/3)/(3/4) is the same as (2/3) x (4/3), same logic applies here

(cos/sin)x(sin)=cos because the sines cancel out and you are left with the cosine.

Speaking of trig identities, I have a quiz on verifying identities and the like tomorrow in my precalc class which I should be studying for. Thanks for the reminder.

DivinEdit: And don't listen to anybody who tells you to use the Pythagorean identity. That is just over-complicating the problem.

remember that (2/3)/(3/4) is the same as (2/3) x (4/3), same logic applies here

(cos/sin)x(sin)=cos because the sines cancel out and you are left with the cosine.

Speaking of trig identities, I have a quiz on verifying identities and the like tomorrow in my precalc class which I should be studying for. Thanks for the reminder.

DivinEdit: And don't listen to anybody who tells you to use the Pythagorean identity. That is just over-complicating the problem.

*Last edited by divinecrossfire at Nov 23, 2009,*

#9

cant cancle when mutiplied i dont think, and its not sin/sin= 1 its sin^2 + Cos^2 = 1

you will have to factor when you multiply then cancle

you will have to factor when you multiply then cancle

#10

cant cancle when mutiplied i dont think, and its not sin/sin= 1 its sin^2 + Cos^2 = 1

you will have to factor when you multiply then cancle

No, you don't. Cot=cos/sin = 1/tan =1/sin/cos.

Cot*sin=Cos/sin * sin/1 = sincos/sin.

The sines divide out, and you're left with cos.

#11

cotx*sinx = (cosx/sinx)*sinx = cosx

Come on, TS, seriously...

Come on, TS, seriously...

#12

FFS