#1
Hey MT, what does it mean when a chord is unaltered? As in a minor chord, or an unaltered minor chord. If I'm correct, does an unaltered chord ALWAYS contain the 1-b3-5 formula, but just a regular minor just has to contain the 1-b3 part? Same with major & dominant chords. Thanks.
Slappa tha bass
Last edited by hootie37 at Jul 23, 2010,
#2
Quote by hootie37
Hey MT, what does it mean when a chord is unaltered? As in a minor chord, or an unaltered minor chord. If I'm correct, does an unaltered chord ALWAYS contain the 1-b3-5 formula, but just a regular minor just has to contain the 1-b3 part? Same with major & dominant chords. Thanks.


The term your thinking of is altered, not unaltered.

An altered chord is always either b5b9 or #5#9. Since it serves a dominant function, the third is major. For soloists, its code word for half-whole diminished.

An unaltered chord is...anything else I guess.
#3
Quote by tubatom868686
The term your thinking of is altered, not unaltered.

An altered chord is always either b5b9 or #5#9. Since it serves a dominant function, the third is major. For soloists, its code word for half-whole diminished.

An unaltered chord is...anything else I guess.


I just know that reading through the Music Theory FAQ, in the section about tonic chords concerning modes, it says that for Dorian you use unaltered minor chords, but for Aeolian, you use minor chords.
Slappa tha bass
#4
first off, let me say that i don't care for that guide much.

viewing modes through a tonal harmony standpoint, you typically don't want to use altered chords in modal playing because you'd be emphasizing notes that aren't in the mode, and it could begin to sound tonal. for the aeolian mode, the same concept would apply. for a minor key, it wouldn't.
Anfangen ist leicht, Beharren eine Kunst.
Last edited by AeolianWolf at Jul 24, 2010,
#5
Quote by AeolianWolf
first off, let me say that i don't care for that guide much.

viewing modes through a tonal harmony standpoint, you typically don't want to use altered chords modal playing because you'd be emphasizing notes that aren't in the mode, and it could begin to sound tonal. for the aeolian mode, the same concept would apply. for a minor key, it wouldn't.


????
#6
Quote by hootie37
I just know that reading through the Music Theory FAQ, in the section about tonic chords concerning modes, it says that for Dorian you use unaltered minor chords, but for Aeolian, you use minor chords.


I play a lot of jazz, so I know a thing or two about chords, and Ive never heard of an unaltered chord meaning anything specific. I mean...I guess it means the 5th is unaltered, but Ive never really heard it used like that. Its cool that your using the faq, but I think thats just a typo
#7
Quote by tubatom868686
I play a lot of jazz, so I know a thing or two about chords, and Ive never heard of an unaltered chord meaning anything specific. I mean...I guess it means the 5th is unaltered, but Ive never really heard it used like that. Its cool that your using the faq, but I think thats just a typo


No the Faq says dorian because of the fact that in jazz, the majority of unaltered minor chords you will encounter are the ii in the ii V cycles, so it's easier to analyze and play keeping dorian in mind.

Same thing happens in the simple Dorian vamps, you want the ii so you can sub stuff in and play with the cycles. You dont have to use dorian but it's easier as an analytical perspective.
#8
Well altered chord means, VERY generally, a chord that has anything about it changed. b9, #11, etc. are all technically alterations. In the context of modes, unaltered chords presumably means don't play a lot of Dmmaj7 - G13b9 (assuming G dorian) because it supposedly ruins the integrity of the mode, whatever your stance is on it.

However, more commonly an altered chord is a dominant chord with an altered 5th.