#1
Fairly simple question:

Theory says that I-IV-V-I is the most basic chord scheme you'll have. I sounds like home, IV want to go away and V wants to go back home. Plus you have all notes of your scale by playing those 3 chords (triads).

I've noticed some songs that use I-V-IV-I instead. From what I said above I have no clue why it sounds good that way.. V wants to go home, but goes to IV instead and IV wants to go away but still goes to I. Can someone explain this?

I probably lack a lot of theory, since all I know I've learned on my own. Had some teachers to support me, but they were more for the instruments I play than for theoretical lessons. I basically don't know why these chords follow up that way. The 'home'-theory cannot really be called a theory of course. So any information about why the notes of IV for example lead to V will be a big help!

Thanx!
lalala
#2
It's all about consonance and dissonance.

Following a note with a different note will either create a dissonant harmony, a point of tension, or a consonant harmony, a point of rest and resolve.

A harmony is generally two notes played together, but the same principles apply to notes in sequences.
#3
They call it "home" as, throughout their years of playing, they find themselves playing that same chord prog time and time again
#5
I've noticed some songs that use I-V-IV-I instead. From what I said above I have no clue why it sounds good that way.. V wants to go home, but goes to IV instead and IV wants to go away but still goes to I. Can someone explain this?


Well, you always want to go home, and coming home from IV is still pretty convenient.
#6
I-V-IV-I basically works for the same reasons that I-IV-V-I works. It's just backwards. But, if you add the 7th to the V, you create a dissonance that pretty much has to resolve to the tonic (or submediant). However, a V without the 7th can easily move to IV, then to I, and it sounds fine. There are countless pop and folk songs that do this. The voice leading of IV-I still contains a leading tone - the root of IV leading to the 3rd of I (in this example, F to E):

C - C
F - E
A - G
F - C

The bass movement also creates a convincing close. The common perception is that V-I creates a stronger close than IV-I, but it really depends on the context (listen the powerful plagal cadence that closes the Lacrimosa in Mozart's Requiem). To me the plagal close is just a different sound than the authentic (V-I). But, again, if you throw in a V7, you have resolve the tritone.
#7
Thanks for the answers! I'll sure look up some more, together with all explained here I'll hopefully understand some more about progressions
lalala
#8
V to I and IV to I are both cadences.
They are both strong ones.
IV-I is called the hallelujah cadence due to it's use in the church.
V-I is an authentic cadence.
#9
Quote by liampje
V to I and IV to I are both cadences.
They are both strong ones.
IV-I is called the hallelujah cadence due to it's use in the church.
V-I is an authentic cadence.


plagal. IV-I is a plagal cadence.
Anfangen ist leicht, Beharren eine Kunst.
#10
I just used a IV-I cadence for the first time in a composition.

I don't really like these names (along with a lot of other musical jargon), which are either too suggestive ("this cadence is authentic, all the others are fake, I'M the real deal") or not suggestive at all ("plagal").
#11
Quote by AeolianWolf
plagal. IV-I is a plagal cadence.

He is still pretty spot on though. Maybe it's a new leaf?

But yeah, OP, look up Cadences. Especially the Extended Plagal Cadence: IV - iv - I. I love it. I love it so much.
#12
^ I've heard the plagal cadence being referred to as the "Amen" cadence. I've also read mutually exclusive definitions of what an "imperfect" cadence is. Few terms are absolute across continents and through history.

After all, modes used to be about tempo.
#13
Quote by Jehannum
I just used a IV-I cadence for the first time in a composition.
... and there was much rejoicing! :-)

I was taught that a subdominant may not follow a dominant, unless you revert to a dominant right after. So I guess I-V-IV-I is not textbook harmony.
#14
Quote by Withakay
... and there was much rejoicing! :-)

I was taught that a subdominant may not follow a dominant, unless you revert to a dominant right after. So I guess I-V-IV-I is not textbook harmony.

Yup. I got points taken off on a test during my AP music theory course cause I did it :/
Sad day, indeed.
#15
Quote by AeolianWolf
plagal. IV-I is a plagal cadence.
And a plagal cadence is called hallelujah cadence due to it's use in the church.
#16
Quote by Withakay

I was taught that a subdominant may not follow a dominant, unless you revert to a dominant right after. So I guess I-V-IV-I is not textbook harmony.

Well, in a classroom, instructors are trying to teach you the common tendencies of harmonic motion; but even in Baroque and Classical music, you can find IV following V (not V7). I was just looking at Mozart's Ave Verum Corpus where he's got a V-IV63 (mm 36-37) used as an evasive cadence.