#1
You're going to have to forgive me for (probably) misusing terminology here, but bear with me...

Let's say on piano, I have a chord progression that goes F# - Gmaj7 - A6. If I play the F# not in root position, but in the first inversion, what does that say for the rest of the progression? In other words, will Gmaj7 also have to be played in the first inversion to sound good? Is a progression that mixes up the positions of the chords something that's common? Theoretically, can you conclude anything about a progression based on the position of the first chord?
#3
Mixing up inversions is very common as melodies tend to follow the highest or second highest notes in the chords used. By inverting the chord you are changing the highest notes which may result in a smoother melody. However, I'm afraid I can't forgive the misuse of bear and bare
When altitude dropping, my ears started popping. One more red nightmare...
#4
Quote by rednightmare
Mixing up inversions is very common as melodies tend to follow the highest or second highest notes in the chords used. By inverting the chord you are changing the highest notes which may result in a smoother melody. However, I'm afraid I can't forgive the misuse of bear and bare
Thank you for your help. Also: http://idioms.thefreedictionary.com/bear+with
#5
Quote by big muff pedal
You're going to have to forgive me for (probably) misusing terminology here, but bear with me...


There's a bear with you?! I can understand why that would put you off a bit...

Let's say on piano, I have a chord progression that goes F# - Gmaj7 - A6. If I play the F# not in root position, but in the first inversion, what does that say for the rest of the progression?


Nothing. It just means the F# chord will have an A# in the bass. That's all it means.

In other words, will Gmaj7 also have to be played in the first inversion to sound good?


No. Not at all. You can have any chord in any inversion you think sounds good.

Is a progression that mixes up the positions of the chords something that's common?


Yes. Bass players would have an incredibley boring job otherwise! They would only be allowed to play root notes (else they would change the inversion of the overall chord)!

Here's a common progression (at least in some classical music): Ic - V - I. Where the first chord here is in second inversion (hence the "c", "b" would be first inversion).

Theoretically, can you conclude anything about a progression based on the position of the first chord?


Nope. Although if the last chord is in any inversion if can sometimes produce a weaker resolution (as in, the last chord of the peice).

So where's the bit about the piano?
#6
Actually, for the progression you mentioned, you could use F# as the bass for all three chords, and get an insteresting effect... so the Gmaj7 will have the 7th, and the A6 the 6th on the bass
Quote by Xiaoxi
The Byzantine scale was useful until the Ottoman scale came around and totally annihilated it.
#7
You gotta keep in mind that inversions only relate to the bass note not being the root - the upper structure of the chord can have whichever note you need in it. Usually though you'll use inversions to make the bass line smoother.
#8
you know, guys, it IS "bear with me"...

mix inversions all you like -- there is no better accompaniment to a great melody than a great bassline.
Anfangen ist leicht, Beharren eine Kunst.