Nervouspace
Registered User
Join date: Nov 2011
443 IQ
#1
Ok lets say I have a D7sus 4 chord D (r) G (4th) A (5th) C (b7th)

Open D string

1st finger 1st fret B string

2 finger 2 fret G string

4th finger 3rd fret high E string

what if I played it like this?

2 finger D string 5th fret

3rd finger G string 5th fret

1st finger B string 3rd fret

4th finger Hi E string 5th fret


The lowest sounding note (on the D string) has changed from D to G but they have the same notes?

Would that be considered a different chord since I changed my bass note? Or is this considered a different voicing? or theres one more word thats not the same as "voicing" for playing a different type of chord the same...or the other way around maybe...I dont remember

thanks
griffRG7321
Theory buff
Join date: Sep 2007
999 IQ
#2
If anyone comes in here saying it's an inversion I will e-slap them.

To answer you, it depends on the context, learn about functional harmony and suspensions to get a better idea of this stuff.
rockingamer2
Larmarky Remark
Join date: Nov 2006
408 IQ
#3
A chord is the same regardless of the order the notes are sounded. The root is not always in the bass. The chord tones are not always arranged the same.

Inversions are named depending on what the bottom note is. Voicings deal with how the chord tones are arranged.
^^The above is a Cryptic Metaphor^^


"To know the truth of history is to realize its ultimate myth and its inevitable ambiguity." Everything is made up and the facts don't matter.


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Last edited by rockingamer2 at Jan 10, 2013,
Nervouspace
Registered User
Join date: Nov 2011
443 IQ
#4
Yes! Inversions...that was the word I was looking for. I obviously have some studying to do. Thanks all for the feedback
LiquidSkies
Registered User
Join date: Feb 2007
392 IQ
#5
And not to forget enharmonic...however that's being called in English.
Like probably the most simple one being Em7 = G6 (and CM9 without the root...) and so on and so on.
So much fun...ha. ha. ha. ~_~