#1
Okay, i was recently reading through a GuitarTechniques interview of Joe Satriani, and i came to the question of Dominant scales. He says something along the lines of "by not playing the third of a Phrygian, you cant tell if its a Phrygian or a Phrygian Dominant".
So i came to the conclusion that a dominant mode is a minor mode with a major third?

But, in an earlier article " Playing through the changes", The Lydian Dominant is said to be a Lydian with a flat seven, or a mixolydian with a sharp 4.

So i came to the conclusion that a dominant mode is ALSO a major mode with a flat 7? But thats just a mixolydian though?
Would both these assumptions be right?
Any links to articles that explain this using the Roman numeric sytem will be helpful.
(i apologise for my spelling and typing)
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#3
And thats because it fits over a dominant 7,
1 3 5 b7?
Quote by Robbie n strat
What on earth goes on in your mind H4x0r.


Quote by cliff_em_all
i think i love you in the non gayest way possible.
#4
well it will fit because it has the dominant formula....

and the dominant chord is called "dominant" because it has the 3 and b7

the reason that this is called dominant is because the interval between the 3 and the b7 is a tritone, aka a b5, which is the dominant sound in the chord, giving it its certain sound
Last edited by quinny1089 at Jul 26, 2006,