#1
hypothetically speaking........if one man was to stand on the American side of the border and another man was standing on the Canadian side, directly across from the American man, and one man was to fire a gun and kill the other man....would there be a crime committed? cause technically, lets say the Canadian man, didn't kill the American on Canadian soil. the only thing i could conclude is that it could be seen as an act of war. what are your thoughts?
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#3
you are right, i think its an act of war, ive heard that somewhere
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#4
Hmmm interesting question......i have no clue
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#5
It'd still be murder there would just be 2 possible courts in which you could be prosecuted.
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#6
most likely the two governments would work out some sort of agreement after months of discussions as to what to do.
#7
The court of the nation of the man that was shot would probably demand the killer be delivered for prosecution, and if the nation of the killer didn't comply, there'd be some sort of conflict (in the worst case, war).
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#9
i think he will be judged in the country where the dead guy's been killed cause the murder is commited there....
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#10
Quote by Cresspo
i think he will be judged in the country where the dead guy's been killed cause the murder is commited there....

both countries have jurisdiction so you could be prosecuted in either.

the murder is committed in both countries because without one event the other cannot occur and if the second event did not occur then there would be no crime.

So the murder happened in both countries
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#11
Quote by Cresspo
i think he will be judged in the country where the dead guy's been killed cause the murder is commited there....


how was the murder committed there if the gun was fired in canada?
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#12
If someone kills a man and goes on the run, cross-state or cross-country, then the judicial services of those countries can take an involvement to the depth they please.

The act is commited across two countries, and either of which could take the proceedings. If the shooter was an American citizen, the American judicial services would more than likely take the fore. If he was a Canadian citizen in America I think the Canadian government would take it.

But keeping in mind he shot a Canadian, legislation would probably be handed to the Canadians anyway.
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#13
Quote by roythereaper
If someone kills a man and goes on the run, cross-state or cross-country, then the judicial services of those countries can take an involvement to the depth they please.

The act is commited across two countries, and either of which could take the proceedings. If the shooter was an American citizen, the American judicial services would more than likely take the fore. If he was a Canadian citizen in America I think the Canadian government would take it.

But keeping in mind he shot a Canadian, legislation would probably be handed to the Canadians anyway.

canadian shot the guy on american soil. so the other way around.

but the rest of your post was spot on. If any country is involved at all then they have jurisdiction.

if an Englishman, an American and a German robbed a bank in France then any 4 of the countries could prosecute, but in most cases it's the country in which the crime is committed. However, in this situation, where the crime has actually been committed is in doubt so it could be either.
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Quote by element4433
Yeah. people, like Lemoninfluence, are hypocrites and should have all their opinions invalidated from here on out.