quick question, help would be much appreciated

Q: why does it require mush less force to accelerate a low mass object than it doesto acelerate a high mass object the same amount?

i thought i had the right answer but i got it wrong
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Newton's Second Law: Force = Mass * Acceleration

The more massive the object, a greater force is necessary to achieve the same acceleration.

I'll have a bourbon.
newtons second law i.e. F = ma (or F= dP/t) A larger mass object will have greater momentum for the same acceleration than a smaller mass. Hence to bring about a greater acceleration a larger net force is required.
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You're just another brick in the wall
force = mass x acceleration (f=ma)... so a=f/m ... a small force on a small mass will produce the same acceleration as a larger force on a proportionally larger mass
"Salvation a la mode, with a cup of tea"~aqualung/jethro tull
If you really want to impress your teacher tell him theory is that the resistance of mass to acceleration is because of something that's called the Higgs field. The Higgs field is purely theoretical though but hopefully the particle accelerator by CERN will prove it's existance once it's finished.
You could also state that it takes more force to start something moving than it does to keep it moving... if thats relevant
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No one cares about the Higgs field. More than likely, it doesn't make sense.
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