#1


When you're figuring out if the chords are standard or inversions, do you consider a note that is an octave from the triad? For the first chord, would it be a I chord counting the G in the bass clef, or would you say it is a I (1st inversion), considering the triad starts at B? Is the note at the bottom just playing the root of the chord?
Schecter Loomis
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Last edited by lespaulrocks39 at Apr 28, 2008,
#2
More than three notes is a harmony and therefore a chord, even if it has a note two octaves lower. So yes, it's a non-inverted I chord with G as the root.
Last edited by st.stephen at Apr 28, 2008,
#3
What about the first chord at the beginning of the 3rd bar? It starts with G, but then goes to the 5th, then 3rd. Is that non-inverted?
Schecter Loomis
LTD Horizon
Ibanez RGA121
Marshall DSL100
Peavey 5150

Quote by emagdnimasisiht
haha
This is the funniest thing i've ever read on UG.
lespaulrocks39, you sir are awesome.
#4
Quote by lespaulrocks39
What about the first chord at the beginning of the 3rd bar? It starts with G, but then goes to the 5th, then 3rd. Is that non-inverted?

Correct. When looking at chords that are not voiced as simple triads, determining if they are an inversion is as simple as looking at the lowest note of the chord. So that chord is a G major root position chord, or in that context a chord I.

Upon closer inspection, that example has an epic case of consecutive fourths. Who wrote that?!
Last edited by shigidab0p at Apr 28, 2008,
#5
^ Bach. Bach didn't subscribe to the Fux counterpoint stuff, they developed in parallel (no pun intended). You see P4s a lot in Bach's music... you can rarely even find parallel 5ths too.
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