#1
One last thread before I stop asking questions for a while;

What does it mean to play modally? Does it simply mean D Dorian in C Major? Or does it involve using the modal chords (M, m, m, M, M, m, Dim) in a progression, and using the respective mode?


Could anyone, yet again, remedy this question for me?
#2
I've generally seen it as simply playing over a modal vamp; it highlights the differences between modal music and key-based music. If you're playing with a key signature of C major, for example and play D Dorian over Dm7 G7 then you're playing in the D Dorian mode, which is playing modally.
#4
Quote by VIRUSDETECTED
Alright, thanks :-D (How would you pronounce that? Hah hah)

Sure, it's what I'd define it as anyway: simply playing in a mode as opposed to something key-based, that's the idea. Part of the reason I'd say it doesn't have to be a big progression is because modes are harmonically unstable and you'd have trouble using more than two or three chords for a modal backing; it would generally want to resolve somewhere else.

And to be honest, I can't even pronounce my own name.
#6
Quote by one vision
Sorry to hijack your thread, but I gotta ask a question too..

Where does B Dorian resolve to? It sounds like it resolves to A, is this correct or am I doin it wrong?


It sounds like it resolves to A because you are playing the A major scale.
B dorian is a B major scale with a flatted third and seventh. It resolves to B.
Someones knowledge of guitar companies spelling determines what amps you can own. Really smart people can own things like Framus because they sound like they might be spelled with a "y" but they aren't.
#11
No. Those notes suggest C major, A minor or any one of their modes. Without a harmonic context, it's impossible to tell you what exactly that is. The mode of C major beginning on B is B Locrian, however.
#13
Quote by one vision
Ok lol, I guess I have to re-read the sticky. I thought I understood it but I dont lol. Thanks.

No problem, modes can be very confusing so post if you have any other questions.
#14
Quote by :-D
^Yes. If you're playing the notes B C# D E F# G# A but failing to resolve to B, you're not playing B Dorian.
Why do you NEED to resolve to B? Isn't something harmonic underneath (like B minor chords/riffs or something) enough to play modally?
#17
^thats what I've always thought, but the tonal center changes with the chords, right? So how can a whole progression (meaning more than 1 chord) be modal if the tonal center changes. Your post, which I agree with, conflicts with BGC's post.
#18
Quote by demonofthenight
^thats what I've always thought, but the tonal center changes with the chords, right? So how can a whole progression (meaning more than 1 chord) be modal if the tonal center changes. Your post, which I agree with, conflicts with BGC's post.

The tonal center doesn't have to change with each chord. For example, Dm7 G7 is a classic D Dorian vamp, so you could play D Dorian over both those chords.
#19
Quote by :-D
The tonal center doesn't have to change with each chord. For example, Dm7 G7 is a classic D Dorian vamp, so you could play D Dorian over both those chords.
But technically, wouldnt you be playing G mixolydian over that G chord if you kept to a D dorian "shape"?

D Dorian is DEFGABC, am I right? So take the note B for instance. It makes a Major sixth over D minor, giving it that definite dorian sound and making it different from your usual aeolian/phrygian. That should be an avoid note in dorian. Am I right so far?

But over that G chord, that B would sound really consonant, because its a chord tone. How can you play the exact same things over these two different chords when 1 note is super consonant over one chord and super dissonant over the other?

Your theory on modes doesnt make sense to me, and it never did.
#21
Quote by branny1982
The tonal centre does not change with each chord.
Maybe "tonal centre" is the wrong term for what I mean in my posts. Root or Tonic would probably have been better.

But you cant argue that a B sounds drastically different over D minor compared to G major, and therefore people should be suggesting to play the same thing over both chords.

Please answer me back Mr Smiley...
#22
Quote by demonofthenight
But technically, wouldnt you be playing G mixolydian over that G chord if you kept to a D dorian "shape"?

D Dorian is DEFGABC, am I right? So take the note B for instance. It makes a Major sixth over D minor, giving it that definite dorian sound and making it different from your usual aeolian/phrygian. That should be an avoid note in dorian. Am I right so far?

But over that G chord, that B would sound really consonant, because its a chord tone. How can you play the exact same things over these two different chords when 1 note is super consonant over one chord and super dissonant over the other?

Your theory on modes doesnt make sense to me, and it never did.

You're playing the notes of G Mixolydian, yes. But the G7 pulls back to the Dm7 chord, keeping your tonality D. The tonal center hasn't changed to G over that chord, because it's keeping the D Dorian modality established. You'd need to initially establish a tonal center of G to actually be using that mode.

If you're using Dorian, why would you avoid the natural sixth? It's one of the defining notes of the mode. The B would sound consonant over a G7 chord, yes, but that doesn't mean your tonal center has changed to G. The G7 chord is not serving to establish a G Mixolydian tonality, but rather support the D Dorian tonality.
#23
Quote by :-D
You're playing the notes of G Mixolydian, yes. But the G7 pulls back to the Dm7 chord, keeping your tonality D. The tonal center hasn't changed to G over that chord, because it's keeping the D Dorian modality established. You'd need to initially establish a tonal center of G to actually be using that mode.

If you're using Dorian, why would you avoid the natural sixth? It's one of the defining notes of the mode. The B would sound consonant over a G7 chord, yes, but that doesn't mean your tonal center has changed to G. The G7 chord is not serving to establish a G Mixolydian tonality, but rather support the D Dorian tonality.


+1
#26
Quote by branny1982
It's about time we locked him up and injected him with these 2 words-

tonal centre

Yes, that sounds about right. I'm going with the American spelling though; it's "center"!

demonofthenight: Just to further accentuate my point, if the tonal center changed with every single chord, why would we even bother to establish an original tonality with a key signature?
#28
Quote by branny1982
If the tonal centre changed with every single chord, then chord progressions wouldn't sound like.... anything!

Surely it's the intervals from the tonal centre that our chord progs follow that give the dynamics.

Exactly.

But I'm going to start a whole new thread just to argue about the spelling of "center".
#30
Okay fine, fuck the tonal centres.

Different harmonic intervals sound different over different types of chords, yes? So why suggest to use the same mode over two different chords.
It doesnt matter which way chords pull, I already know chords pull to and from the dominant chords, but how the fuck does that answer my question?

And why not use the major sixth? I use it heaps, but unlike you I acknowledge it sounds different to a major third.

And yes, I also acknowledge my posts can be hard to read, so reread them if you want to answer me.
#31
Quote by demonofthenight
Okay fine, fuck the tonal centres.

Different harmonic intervals sound different over different types of chords, yes? So why suggest to use the same mode over two different chords.
It doesnt matter which way chords pull, I already know chords pull to and from the dominant chords, but how the fuck does that answer my question?

And why not use the major sixth? I use it heaps, but unlike you I acknowledge it sounds different to a major third.

And yes, I also acknowledge my posts can be hard to read, so reread them if you want to answer me.

First of all, calm down. I was answering your post at the end of the last page and not your most recent one. Of course different intervals sound different over different chords, yes. But with Dm7 G7, the D has been established as the tonal center, so you're going to be playing D Dorian if you're playing modally. With something like a static G7 chord, G is clearly the tonal center so G Mixolydian could be implied. The G7 in this case pulls back to Dm7, keeping the tonal center D. Thus, it answers your question from before.

And don't tell me that I don't "acknowledge" different intervals. You're just being a prick for no reason.