Found 60 results
Found 60 results
does someone have the chords / tabs for these two Everlast songs : "My House" and "I'll Be There for You" ???
One last suggestion. Rating a tab less than 5/5 without reaching the tab author with a correction/suggestion should be a ban-able offense. I would gladly fix a tab if you'd just tell me what's wrong, but people give me a 4/5 without saying a word. That unjustly decreases the number of people who view my tabs, essentially decreasing the number of people I can help.
Next time shorten your tab, I assume it's because it was too wide.
In the case they're close , we don't approve them. Tpa link please.
The 'edit' link usually gets expired after 48 hours. anyway, approved.
Resubmit it and post the tpa link.
I would be interested to know if Don Latarski specifically said that the chord to the left could be an inversion? Or whether that was a conclusion you reached based on his claim that you can separate the bass note from the chord formula.
Okay so what I wrote was not quite correct - there is an inversion there...but first...
We agree a slash chord is "chord"/"bass". We also agree that the voicing of the chord above the bass note in the case of chord inversions is irrelevant. Where we seem to disagree is in the case other slash chords.
What I believe you are saying is that that the chord to the left of the slash could be an inversion such as C major second inversion which would be played over a bass note to the right of the slash such as a B note.
Which we both agree can be called C/B would, according to you, be something along the lines of C in second inversion over a B bass note.
Is this correct? Is this what you are arguing?
When separating the bass note from the chord formula you are not separating the bass note from the chord - you are just separating it from the chord formula. For example A/F# gives us an A6 chord where the F# is in the bass. The chord formula for A6 is A C# E F#. Now because the F# is just in the bass we can separate the bass from the chord formula and we have A C# E over F# or A/F#
And while you can separate the bass note from the chord formula, you can not separate the bass note from the chord inversion - the chord inversion is determined by the bass note.
They go on to describe in great detail the primary purpose of the inversion to allow the use of a bass note other than the root to create bass lines in harmonic progressions that are not disjunct.
Attitude? I think you're reading too much into it all. I don't have any bad feelings towards you.
The thing is, absolutely no one is going to say "G 2nd inversion/C". Yes, in theory, you're correct. I just think what you're suggesting doesn't make much sense.
The thing is, absolutely no one is going to say "G 2nd inversion/C". Yes, in theory, you're correct. However, it has no real world application.
Noone was disputing that...
On a separate note, after I've held an instinctive dislike for slash chord notation (preferring classical equivalents like figured bass) for quite some time, I've realised that slash chords have their place. In this instance for example, I think it's the best way of notating this chord.